Your [1] sounds odd to me, I haven't heard of this "more likely than not" type of standard in civil fines.
I also find statements like the following in papers that touch on the matter: "Unlike Common Law, Continental European Civil Law does not generally
distinguish between standards of
proof for civil and criminal matters. (15)" (http://www.coll.mpg.de/pdf_dat/2013_12online.pdf)
I also find statements like the following in papers that touch on the matter: "Unlike Common Law, Continental European Civil Law does not generally distinguish between standards of proof for civil and criminal matters. (15)" (http://www.coll.mpg.de/pdf_dat/2013_12online.pdf)
Anyone in the know care to comment?